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Libertarian Answer Man: Strict Liability; Negligence as “Partially Intentional”

No time to clean this one up at present, so here it is mostly raw—

Now, the topic of Willful Negligence.
I looked at “The Libertarian Approach to Negligence, Tort, and Strict Liability: Wergeld and Partial Wergeld”. I understand the idea of a “spectrum between non-action or mere behavior”.
Where I get jumbled up, is on the combined topics of “willful negligence” and “action”. Example:

Joe is lounging in his easy chair holding his known-to-be-vicious dog on a leash. He falls asleep; dog gets out of the house and kills a child. Whatever other details we wish to add (front door open, etc) should show Joe as extremely willfully negligent. Even stipulate Joe shows no remorse, indeed, objects to any estoppel argument.

By any intuitive sense, he should have known better and been more careful.

Here’s where I get tripped up. Joe took no praxeological action. Indeed, he was fully passive, literally not moving, let alone taking intentional action. Yet, here is a case where pure inaction led to a serious tort.

yes, this is why I think the theory of strict liability needs more work (which I admit I have not yet done a lot of). Libertarians take the idea for granted and I think they are wrong to do this. They assume that ownership (of a dog; maybe “of a child” or “a servant” or … employee–via respondeat superior) means the owner is responsible. The entire law of negligence and tort has lots of assumptions I am not sure are compatible with libertarian notions of responsibility; I think the whole body of thought needs to be rethought. Negligence implies that there is a duty-cause analysis–you have a duty; your failure to act reasonably to fulfill the duty means you were a cause of the harm, etc. But this asusmes you have a duty. It’s not clear why my dog hurting you is my fault. Myabe it’s your fault. Just because it’s “my” dog doesnn’t instantly mean I am responsible .WE need further analysis for this. As I have pointed out ownership means right to do something NOT an obligation or responsibilty. For example stefan moly and others are sloppy in their use of “own” e.g. they say “if you harm someone you own the harm” by which they mean if you cause someone harm someone you must compensate them. Okay but this is not what ownership means and ownership per se simply means the right to exclude others. This is why if you own a gun or knife, and thief A steals it and harms victim B with it, I am not responsible, even though I own the gun or knife! Ownerhsip is not what incurs responsibilty–action is! I point this out in these posts
I am not trying to armchair theorize. Rather I really want to best understand the underpinnings (if any) that libertarian legal theory may provide for willful negligence.
I think the best way to think of it is: is there a situation where you are the cause of damage done to someone. It can‘t be by mere virtue of owning the dog. Consider the gun example.
Suppose I have a dog I can control and I tell him “sic’ em” and the dog obeys my commands and attacks innocent person B. I think Im responsible–because I caused the harm, using the dog as a means. This is what i go into in ch. 8.  But it’s not because I “own” the dog. So we have to be careful how we develop tort theory and the idea of “strict liability.”
My best random thoughts on it:
– It is outside the NAP, as there is no action on Joe’s part, thus no intent, no aggression.

– It’s an “accident” in the colloquial sense.

– But it is also a series of real-world events for which his negligence played a highly significant causal role (at least cause-in-fact), culminating in a (admittedly unintended) death.
– Yet his extreme willful negligence seems just shy of intent.
well, I think as I point out that negligence can be viewed as “partial intent“. So that means the punishemnt is reduced as well. But negligence has to do wtih the action of the perpetrator. If I intend to shoot you with a gun, it’s murder. If I intend to shoot a turkey but am negligent and careless and accidetnally shoot you, it’s half-intentional so it’s half-murder. Something like that (more like 1/100th, but you get the point). But if “my dog” attacks you it’s not clear that it’s my action at all.

***
Q:

It does seem that the area of negligence needs work.

I had initial thoughts about the dog example, thinking that, as his property, he is responsible for its harm to others. But even in the book you make clear that ownership is not an ingredient to the issue, especially if the object used in aggression was stolen from another.

And anyway, negligence excludes intent which is why it’s outside the whole matter of aggression.

Using a pet dog to achieve the ends of companionship and protection, is an instance of the general act of utilizing a means (resource) to achieve an end. In this case, it strikes me that the initial acquisition of the dog is a starting action whose intended end extends thru the whole time he possesses the pet. During that entire time, the possibility exists the dog could harm others (the known nature of the animal, a risk inherent to this particular scarce resource). Insofar as Joe is “on-goingly” employing this means to his ongoing ends, I wonder if we can view the resource as a property of Joe. If so, and that resource causes unintended harm, the most proximate causal agent is he who was employing the means. This may be a clue where responsibility could be assigned in a legal sense.

The reasoning may be easier to work through if this wasn’t a pet, and instead Joe kept explosives lying around, and these went off unintentionally.

KINSELLA:

It does seem that the area of negligence needs work.

I had initial thoughts about the dog example, thinking that, as his property, he is responsible for its harm to others. But even in the book you make clear that ownership is not an ingredient to the issue, especially if the object used in aggression was stolen from another.

exactly. most libertarians take a “strict liability’ approach, without fully appreciating what that means, and because of the assumption that “if you own something you are responsible for it.” But the essence of ownership is RIGHT TO USE, a RIGHT, NOT a “responsibility.’ As I point out in that piece and in the book, you are responsible NOT for your “property” but for your actions. So then the question is: was the dog’s attack an action that can be attributable to th owner? I think in some cases it can, but it’s not merely because he’s “the owner”, although that can be a relevant factor. In short I think we have to wait for custom and customary law organically evolved to develop to handle such matters–guided by more abstract libertarian principles–instead of figuring it out from the armchair. But the basic principle is: everyone is responsible for their own actions. If you want to ascribe secondary or vicarious liability to someone for the direct actions of another–whether it’s an employee, or henchman, or child, or animal–you need a good reason. I simply think “the fact that he owned it” is not alone sufficient. That’s all. This is b/c I recognize ownership is the right to use, not a responsibilty. see e..g p. 425 et pass. of my book.

And anyway, negligence excludes intent which is why it’s outside the whole matter of aggression.

well the way I think of it, is it’s partial intent. thats why the punishment is less.  see also n. 75, pp. 425-26.

Using a pet dog to achieve the ends of companionship and protection, is an instance of the general act of utilizing a means (resource) to achieve an end.

yes. Whether you own the dog or not! For example it might be your girlfriend’s dog.

In this case, it strikes me that the initial acquisition of the dog is a starting action whose intended end extends thru the whole time he possesses the pet. During that entire time, the possibility exists the dog could harm others (the known nature of the animal, a risk inherent to this particular scarce resource).

correct. So in a given context where the owner controls the dog, brings it around other people and others thus expect the owner to control it and keep it secure if it is dangerous etc., then in those cases, you could say the owner who has assumed responsibility for it, is liable if he allows it to harm others–similar arguments can be made for your children. I am not opposed to these arguments, and think something like this should and would and could develop. But it’s not merely because you “own” the secondary factor (the child, the plow, the factory, the animal) and this issue cannot be solved by a simplistic appeal to “strict liability” which confuses what ownership means: it’s a right, not a responsibility, so ownership rights along can‘t do much work in deciding who is liable secondarily. We need other considerations. And to be fair, the tort law has taken these into account, but it’s been a muddle, a mess, since the law is not wholly Austrian or libertarian so it mangles some issues. In the future world, libertarian rules and libertarian scholars will help to clarify this. This is what I mean in part V.B of ch. 13, “B. The Role of Commentators and Codes”

Insofar as Joe is “on-goingly” employing this means to his ongoing ends, I wonder if we can view the resource as a property of Joe.

that is not a bad insight or argument. Yes, possible.

If so, and that resource causes unintended harm, the most proximate causal agent is he who was employing the means.

that is one way to look at it, yes.

This may be a clue where responsibility could be assigned in a legal sense.

yes. not only that, but context, customs, usage rights of the property where people congregate (e.g., everyting is private; A and B are standing on some ground, owned by someone: either A, or B, or C. Someone has some default rules or expectations about conduct on that property).

The reasoning may be easier to work through if this wasn’t a pet, and instead Joe kept explosives lying around, and these went off unintentionally.

Perhaps, but the explosives example is better beacuse here you can see that Joe’s ownership of the explosives is irrelevant. If Joe shoots someone with a gun, or blows them up with explosives, he is liable becaus of his action in using these means, not because he’s the “owner”–in fact he’s liable even if he is not the owner. And the true owner O is not (necessarily) liable if Joe uses O’s gun or explosives to harm others! so you can see that owenrship is almost irrelevant to the analysis. CONTROL might be relevant but not ownership. The reason is ownership is a normative-legal concept but when we are talking about liability we are talking about causation, which is another realm of inquiry. Keep in mind Misesian and hoppean dualism. We have, in praxeology and economics, we have action, which has on the one hand, teleological considerations (the ends or intentionality of the actor) and also the causal analysis ( what means were employed to achieve the end). Or the dualism of fact vs. norm, is vs. ought. We have to keep these domains of analysis distinct.
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  • Curious January 2, 2024, 7:31 pm

    I see some merit in both sides.
    If the dog was released by the action of a person other than the owner, that other person could be liable. If they were ignorant of the dangerous nature of the dog, that is similar to a case where an ignorant person tries to do something beneficial (switch a trolley bound to kill someone?) but ends up making things worse by mistake.
    But someone has to be liable, don’t they? If the dog gets loose and kills someone, either the owner’s precaution of leashing the dog was inadequate, or we have to say the victim was liable for taking inadequate precautions.
    A dog is not a moral agent or a legal agent, subject to legal penalties. (I suppose it could receive a death sentence, but it won’t be asked to serve jail time or pay restitution.) By fostering the dog, the owner accepts some degree of responsibility for what the dog does, as if the dog was his agent.

    So it is not possible for the owner to be completely passive. He acts to take precautions created by his choice of owning the dog, and he acts by delegating the dog to act for him. If he does not act to take precautions but was aware of the danger, he ought to be held liable.

    But then, what if someone else releases the dog? If they knew and intended to create a danger, the releaser would be liable. If they were ignorant of the vicious character of the dog, maybe not. If they had the owner’s permission to access the place where the dog was, but had not been sufficiently warned about the potential danger, the owner is back on the hook.

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